Q&A#16 Why is Lot Called 'Righteous' When He Offered His Daughters to the Men of Sodom?

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Today's Question: "How are we to interpret Lot's offering of his two virgin daughters to the men of Sodom when they surround his house and demand that he brings out his guests so that they may have sex with them in Genesis 19? Was it such an unthinkable breach of hospitaility to let his guests be molested in this way that he desperately resorted to a lesser of two evils? Or was the offer simply a stalling tactic as he knew that the men of Sodom would not accept it anyway? How does 2 Peter 2:7 control our interepretation of the passage and of Lot's life in general?"

The George Athas article I reference can be read here: https://www.academia.edu/28365744/Has_Lot_Lost_the_Plot_Detail_Omission_and_a_Reconsideration_of_Genesis_19.

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